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PRMIA 8010 Exam Syllabus Topics:

PRMIA Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Sample Questions:

1. Under the KMV Moody's approach to calculating expectingdefault frequencies (EDF), firms' default on obligations is likely when:

A) asset values reach a level below totalliabilities
B) asset values reach a level between short term debt and total liabilities
C) asset values reach a level below short term debt
D) expected asset values one year hence are below total liabilities

2. Which of the following is the most accurate description of EPE (Expected Positive Exposure):

A) The maximum average credit exposure over a period of time
B) The price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date
C) Weighted average of thefuture positive expected exposure across a time horizon.
D) The average of the distribution of positive exposures at a specified future date

3. In respect of operational risk capital calculations, the Basel II accord recommends a confidence leveland time horizon of:

A) 99.9% confidence level over a 1 year time horizon
B) 99.9% confidence level over a 10 day time horizon
C) 99% confidence level over a 10 year time horizon
D) 99% confidence level over a 1 year time horizon

4. Identify the correct sequence of events as it unfolded in the credit crisis beginning 2007:
I. Mortgage defaults increased
II. Collapse in prices of unrelated assets as banks tried to create liquidity III. Banks refused to lend or transact with each other IV. Asset prices for CDOs collapsed

A) III, IV, I and II
B) I, III, IV and II
C) IV, I, II and III
D) I, IV, III and II

5. Under the KMV Moody's approach to credit risk measurement, which of the following expressions describes the expected 'default point' value of assets at which the firm may be expected to default?

A) Short term debt+ Long term debt
B) 2* Short term debt + Long term debt
C) Long term debt + 0.5* Short term debt
D) Short term debt + 0.5* Long term debt

Solutions: